This the best and most simple write-up that explains it so far that I've been able to find.
I'm writing a paper on the "Phantom Time Hypothesis". You can Google this, or refer to this paper by Niemitz http://www.cl.cam.ac.uk/~mgk25/volatile ... z-1997.pdf, or this by Illig http://www.bearfabrique.org/Catastrophi ... _paper.htm, or this article about it on the BBC website http://www.bbc.co.uk/dna/h2g2/classic/A84012040. Briefly, the hypothesis is that in order to reconcile the difference between the Julian and Gregorian calendar, we have to remove 300 years from the 'official' calendar. Illig reckons these years would be 614-911. Thus many popes, emperors, wars &c never existed. The hypothesis explains this as a massive conspiracy. The entire history of that period was invented by Holy Roman Emperor Otto III, whose conventional dates are given as 980 –1002, but who really lived 300 years before that, from about 680 to 702. However, in connivance with Pope Sylvester II, he decided to convince everybody they were living at the end of the First Millennium, because it was a wonderful opportunity for positive PR, and Otto liked the idea of reigning in the Year 1000. “It was such a nice, round number”. He changed the dates, and got scribes to write an extra 300 years of history.
I have my own ideas about this but welcome the thoughts of people here. In particular, I am interested in how ordinary people in the early middle ages actually recorded years. Did they really rely on priests to tell them the time (it is essential to the hypothesis that the whole Church was involved in the conspiracy)? Or did they record dates and years in their own way? How often did official documents record the exact date?
My only knowledge of reference to dates is Bede, who includes a whole chronology of the world in his book on the English Church and people. (However, Bede was living right in the middle of the 'phantom period' so perhaps his works were a later forgery).
Thanks
Edward
http://medievalstudies.livejournal.com/331265.html
I have not read the paper that makes this claim yet. But I absolutely love the idea in the sense of being fascinated by it. I spent the day reading all I could, besides the paper itself, yet, and I cannot understand why this idea is pure anathema to others to even remotely consider. Metafilter had a lengthy thread of a bunch of too cool for school comments last year. Fair enough.
But just as I am formulating an argument to answer the questions in my head, I randomly came across this:
Texas A&M Picked Up Two National Championships, Two Conference Titles Over The Summer
You're looking at two photos of Texas A&M's Kyle Field, both via Rant Sports. The top was taken last season, the bottom snapped just this week. Pretend this is one of those "spot the differences" bar games, and see if you can tell what's new. Yep, the Aggies' history managed to get a lot more storied over the offseason.
Two "new" national titles, in 1919 and 1927. Two new Big 12 championships, in 1997 and 2010.
The reason is because the NCAA has never had an official D 1-A/FBS national champion. Even in the modern era, the winner is merely the "BCS Champion." (The NCAA does name a national champion, but it's the FCS winner, where there's actually a playoff in place. Yes, your defending college football national champions are the North Dakota State Bison.)
Competitive sport hates a void. So, over the years, there have been numerous attempt to decide a champion, relying on either pure math, or a poll of educated voters. Especially in the early days of college football, these systems were developed with regularity, and were eradicated just as quickly, and were often in direct competition with each other. At times in the 1920s, there were more than 10 competing systems. It wasn't weird for five or six different schools in any given year to have a claim to a title. Texas A&M isn't strictly inventing championships, but it's citing more obscure ones, that even in their time weren't taken that seriously.
• In 1919, either Harvard or Illinois won the title, depending on who you talked to. But the National Championship Foundation, which was formed in 1980, polled its voters to choose retroactive championships for every year dating back to 1869. For 1919, they declared a three-way tie between Harvard, Notre Dame, and Texas A&M.
The Billingsley Report, the creation of programmer Richard Billingsley, also retroactively declared champions beginning in 1996, including the undefeated 1919 Aggies. It is purely mathematical, arguably quite flawed, and has become an actual component of the BCS Standings.
• In 1927, Illinois was the closest thing to a consensus champion those confusing 1920s could offer. But the Sagarin Ratings, the computer formula devised in the 1980s by Jeff Sagarin and more familiarly used for basketball, declared the Aggies the national champs that year.
The conference titles are easier to sort out.
• In 1997, the Aggies finished first in the Big 12 South—though with the third best record in the entire conference. In the conference title game, they were blown out by Nebraska. They're still claiming that year as a conference championship.
• In 2010, there was a three-way tie in the Big 12 South, with Texas A&M coming in third by the tiebreaker of overall record. (There was also a tie in the North division, meaning that literally every team that finished above .500 can technically boast a conference championship that season.) The Aggies didn't even go to the conference title game, but still claim the conference title.
It's called the "mythical" national championship, but a better term for A&M's titles are technical. Sure, they had national championships, according to someone—but they're only valid if you're willing to accept all those other great national champions over the years, like the Centre College Praying Colonels in 1919, Tom Osborne's 9-3 Huskers in 1981, or Boise State in 2006. In other words: enjoy those fake titles, Aggies. Whatever helps you sleep at night.
http://deadspin.com/5941380/texas-am-pi ... the-summer
So what we're looking at is a contemporary way to fake facts within marginally reasonable, livable distances in time and must assume nobody will notice -- here in the age of the Internet. Who is to grapple with this? Who cares? I sure don't. But this is definitive proof that time and history can be fucked with here at this very day and the level of difficulty given almost a thousand years makes it exponential.
Did yokels back in 680 have calendars on their fridges? Did they keep their wrist watches up to spec? Were their cellphones synched to network time?
No. Lower class peeps didn't even know what year they were born for the most part as late as dates as 1903 and even beyond that.
I simply don't think this can be a hypothesis that can be dismissed. Even if it didn't happen, I am sure it partially always happens and always has because it is obvious it can.